DOES EXODUS 3;14 [2013 NWT] [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
Some cite our own translation as proof that Jesus is God, saying that Jehovah became Jesus because it was needed. We believe that God’s name is arguably translated as "Causes to Become" and that the summary of the meaning of his name at Exodus 3:14 is translated in the 2013 NWT as "I Will Become What I Choose to Become." (Compare parallel translations of Exodus 3:12 [pa|in] which also use the same Hebrew expression tranlated as "I will prove to be" [1984 NWT Reference], rather than "I am".) We believe this means that he becomes whatever is necessary to accomplish his purposes. So some have run with this to claim that he became the man, Jesus. (For proof otherwise, see the subheading "GOD HAS NEVER BEEN A MAN THAT DWELLS ON EARTH" in Part 13: What Definitively Proves That Jesus Is Not God?)A literal interpretation of Exodus 3:14 is not in keeping with its intent and is not necessary to an understanding of the text. The statement indicates that Jehovah has many hats, but putting on a hat for a job to be done is not the same as changing one’s form entirely as if changing a man into a sheep or ox to provide wool or plow a field. Instead, he simply does what is necessary to accomplish his will. There is nothing metaphysical implied in the text.
You decide: Is this verse clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: The balance of the Scriptures make clear that Jehovah is not a man, does not change, has never been seen, and does not dwell in tents or temples. A metaphysical interpretation of the text is not indicated in the text and its meaning is explained by its context.
DOES LEVITICUS 26:12 [pa|in] AND 2 CORINTHIANS 6:16 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
It is believed by Trinitarians that this is a prophecy of God coming down as Jesus. However, the Scriptures make clear what the meaning is. Genesis 5:24 [pa|in] says "Enoch kept walking with the true God." Then he was no more, for God took him.". And just a number verses after the Scripture in question, it says, "If in spite of these things you do not accept my correction and you insist on walking in opposition to me, then I too will walk in opposition to you, and I myself will strike you seven times for your sins." (Le 26:23, 24 [pa|in]) Deuteronomy 8:19 [pa|in] speaks of walking after other Gods. Can you see how faulty the Trinitarian/Binitarian reasoning is here? The use of the words "walk among you" is clearly figurative. It means that they would be walking "after" him by serving him, (De 13:4 [pa|in]) walking "before" him by doing his will, (Ge 17:1 [pa|in]) and walking with him as his friends. (Isa 41:8 [pa|in]) Thus, he walks among them.At 2 Corinthians 6:16, Paul quoted Leviticus 26:12, not to apply it as a prophecy of Jesus, but to say that God was walking among them at that time, more than 30 years after Christ’s ascension.
You decide: Are these verses clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: To walk among them is clearly figurative according to many scripture texts. Paul was saying God was walking among them even then.
DOES JOB 19:25 [pa|in] AND ISAIAH 59:20 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
It is believed that the prophecies about Jesus in Job and Isaiah prove that Jesus is God because God is called a redeemer in Psalm 19:14 [pa|in] and Psalm 78:35 [pa|in] and is called a repurchaser in many places. While it is true that Jesus’ ransom sacrifice redeemed mankind, when Jehovah is called the "repurchaser", as at Isaiah 44:6 [pa|in], it is referring specifically to when Jehovah saved all Israel out of the hands of the Egyptians. At Deuteronomy 9:26 [pa|in], Moses explained, "O Sovereign Lord Jehovah, do not bring your people to ruin. They are your personal possession, whom you redeemed through your greatness and brought out of Egypt with a mighty hand." A "redeemer", like a repurchaser, is one who pays a price, and he paid that price through the sacrifice of Pharoah’s firstborn. Jesus’ being the redemption sacrifice for our sins did not make him God any more than the sacrifice of Pharoah’s firstborn made that one God. Can you see how faulty the Trinitarian/Binitarian reasoning is here? But being the ones who actually paid with their own lives, they can be called "redeemers" and "repurchasers".
Christ gave himself as the redemption price, (Tit 2:13, 14 [pa|in]; See DOES TITUS 2:13 PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD? in Part 12 [5]) but he is not the one who made it happen, Jehovah is; thus Jehovah is the author of our salvation. As high priest Simeon said in prayer to God, Jesus was simply "your salvation", meaning that he was the means of salvation. (Lu 2:29, 30 [pa|in])
Christ gave himself as the redemption price, (Tit 2:13, 14 [pa|in]; See DOES TITUS 2:13 PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD? in Part 12 [5]) but he is not the one who made it happen, Jehovah is; thus Jehovah is the author of our salvation. As high priest Simeon said in prayer to God, Jesus was simply "your salvation", meaning that he was the means of salvation. (Lu 2:29, 30 [pa|in])
You decide: Is this verse clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: Jesus paid with his life just as Pharoah’s son did, but Jehovah is not Pharaoh's son. Sharing titles does not matter unless the title is unique by its nature.
DOES PSALM 31:5 [pa|in] WITH ACTS 7:59 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
It is believed by many that Stephen was quoting Psalm 31:5 when he said "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit" at Acts 7:59. However, they are quite different requests. At Psalm 31:5, the psalmist was not asking Jehovah to "receive" his spirit, because the person in the psalm was not dying. He was talking about remaining spiritual in the face of continual adversity. The person was redeemed, not by Christ, but by truth, as that verse calls Jehovah "the God of truth". The whole psalm is about those lying against Jehovah's anointed servants as a composite whole in order to condemn them to death. Verse 4 in the Psalm refers to the net (a trap) laid by haters and it goes on to refer to all their underhanded dealings to entrap the servant, but they are never successful, which means the servant never actually dies, and escapes by Jehovah bringing an end to the enemies, not the servant.Stephen, however, died. Stephen was expressing faith in the day when Christ would resurrect his anointed brothers, receiving them to himself in heaven during his presence. (1Co 15:23 [pa|in]; 1Th 4:16 [pa|in])
You decide: Is this verse clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: The Psalm never spoke of their spirit being 'received' and is about someone who is never killed because the traps of their enenies fail in the face of God's truth. Stephen, on the other hand, was being stoned to death and made an expression consistent with his heavenly resurrection hope as a brother of Christ.
DOES PSALM 45:6 [pa|in] AND HEBREWS 1:8 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
Many translations render these two verses similar to the World English Bible, which says: "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever. The scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your Kingdom." However, the New World Translation renders it "God is your throne
The exact translation of Hebrews 1:8 from Greek is: "The throne of you O God into the ages of the ages, scepter of uprightness, scepter of your Kingdom." While the exact translation of Psalm 45:6 in the Hebrew reads this way, "[Your] throne God ages and futures, scepter of equity, scepter of your kingdom."
The exact grammatical construction of "Your throne God" in Hebrew is: "[possessive] noun pronoun noun". But note how Genesis 21:13 [pa|in] and scriptures like it, having this same grammatical construction of "[possessive] noun pronoun pronoun", is literally, "Your Seed he". Thus, it is rendered in ALL Bibles as "He is your seed". Thus this shows clearly how the psalm should be translated as, "God is your throne." For this reason, the Common English Bible translates it this way, "Your divine throne". Do you think this inconsistency in Trinitarian/Binitarian translations is without bias?
Does the context of the psalm and Hebrews agree? Indeed! In the psalm, in verse 2 it says that "God has blessed you to time indefinite." Thus, the one being spoken of is not God. In verse 7 it says "your God," showing that the one spoken about is not God, but is a worshiper of God. Thus, the context clearly shows how we should understand the Hebrew grammatical construction of the words "throne of you God" to mean "God is your throne".
In the Letter to the Hebrews, the context very clearly says that "God" is the God of Jesus, saying "God, your God" exalted Jesus, from a lowly status, more than his co-equal "partners". (Heb 1:9 [pa|in]) "God" is not the reference Paul is making here, saying who Jesus is, but that when speaking "about the Son", Paul was referring to the words "your throne", that is Jesus’ throne. Jesus is the one that God has appointed to sit upon his throne. So when it says, "your throne" it is saying that Jesus will be upon that throne, not as God, but as God’s chosen king.
Does the balance of the scriptures agree? Indeed it does. The psalm itself was referring to the throne of David’s kingship, as expressed at Luke 1:32, 33 [pa|in], saying: "Jehovah God will give him the throne of David his father, and he will rule as King over the house of Jacob forever, and there will be no end to his Kingdom." This is also stated at 2 Samuel 7:12 [pa|in] and 1 Chronicles 17:12-14 [pa|in], saying, "I will raise up your offspring after you, your own son, and I will firmly establish his kingdom." At Isaiah 9:7 [pa|in] it says, "On the throne of David and on his kingdom in order to establish it firmly and to sustain it through justice and righteousness, from now on and forever." And in all cases, no hint of that one being God.
DOES ISAIAH 7:14 [pa|in], 8:8-10 [pa|in] AND MATTHEW 1:23 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
It is said that in the prophecy about Jesus at Isaiah 7:14, that because the name given to Jesus is "Immanuel", loosely claimed to mean "God with us", that Jesus is God. However, the name "Immanuel" has no greater meaning than it did when the Jews used the same base word, such as at 2 Chronicles 32:8 [pa|in], where Hezekiah said, "and with us is Jehovah our God". ("Uomanu YHWH elainu") This did not require that Jehovah God physically walk among them. He was indeed with them, but by means of backing them with his power and manipulating the heart of a king. This was clearly the meaning of the name in relation to Jesus as well, showing that Jehovah was backing him in behalf of the Jews. Can you see how faulty the Trinitarian/Binitarian reasoning is here? Unless the name says "I am God", just saying "With Us is God" is not proof and ambiguous renderings of the name in English to promote a Trinity, such as "God with us", do not change the meaning in the original Hebrew.You decide: Are these verses clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: The Jews used the same base word in the name "Immanuel" without God walking among them. Also, a name cannot mark a person as God unless it clearly and unequivocally states it.
DO THE PROPHECIES OF JESUS AT ISAIAH 9:6 [pa|in] AND 10:21 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
It is claimed that these titles are shared by God and that they therefore mean that Jesus is God. But a father and son can both be ’kings’. (1Ki 1:32-37 [pa|in]) Also, the Jews called grandfathers and great grandfathers as simply "fathers". (Ge 32:9 [pa|in]) Likewise, even angels and judges are called "gods". (See below.) Since Jesus is Adam’s replacement, and is the one through whom we have redemption, then he has become our eternal father, (Lit., "Father of the future",) as he has given us life through everlasting salvation. (1Co 15:45 [pa|in]) He is "Prince of Peace" because he is not the Grand King, Jehovah. (Ps 47:8 [pa|in]; 48:2 [pa|in]; Mt 5:34, 35 [pa|in]) Can you see what Trinitarians/Binitarians have failed to consider?Jesus is here called "Mighty god", (Heb., "El-Gibbowr", lit., "Masterful God" or possibly, "God’s Champion",) not "God Almighty", (Heb. "El-Shadday", lit., "God Who’s [strength] Suffices", referring to the extent of his power,) so they were clearly not in competition. Isaiah 10:21 refers back to "the Mighty God" spoken of in the previous prophecy at Isaiah 9:6, (Compare Isaiah 10:21 to Hosea 1:11 [pa|in]) and not to Jehovah God. Therefore, the true God is never once called "El-Gibbowr". So it would be biased to view it as meaning that the one called this is the true God.
Also, Jesus is not the only other living personage called a "god" in the Scriptures. Three other times in the Hebrew Scriptures, Jehovah himself refers to created beings (Angels and human judges) as "gods" without indicating any competition with him at Exodus 4:16 [pa|in] and 7:1 [pa|in] and Psalm 82:6 [pa|in]. (Compare 1Co 8:5 [pa|in]; See DOES JOHN 1:1 PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD for more details.) The key is in understanding that "god" is not an indicator of one’s substance or uniqueness, but of their power and authority over mankind. For created beings, their power and authority as "god" is granted to them by the only true God, Jehovah.
If I were to say "the only true judge", I would, of course, be talking about Jehovah God, but that does not mean that he has not appointed others to do juging. It simply means that he is the only one with the natural right to judge. Jehovah was never appointed to that role, but it does not mean someone else cannot be a judge by appointment, nor that it is impossible for Jehovah himself to appoint anyone as such. But none of them can be "the true Judge". The same goes for the title of "god".
However, if we break up the letters into their constituent parts, we get "exalted" (An unused root,) and "son", ("bar" is the shortened form of bowr,) from which we arrive at "exalted Son of God", which was probably why the word can mean champion, as in an "exalted son" of a kingdom. If this is the correct translation, then it was likely left out of the Septuagint because the translators surely found it as offensive when it was translated as they found it in Jesus’ day. (John 5:18; see DOES JOHN 5:18 AND 10:33 PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD? in Part 12 [4].) Because to them a son was equal with a father because a Son inherits all things from his father. (2Sa 14:16 [pa|in]; 2Pe 1:17 [pa|in])
You decide: Are these verses clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: There are no titles listed here that are shown to be shared with Jehovah, except the word "god", which is shared with other living beings such as angels and human judges. "God" is a word indicating power and authority, which can be granted.
DOES ISAIAH 42:8 [pa|in] WITH HEBREWS 1:3 [pa|in], JOHN 1:14 [pa|in] OR 17:5 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
It is claimed by Trinitarians/Binitarians that because Isaiah 42:8 [pa|in] says that God does not share his glory with anyone else that this means Jesus is God because he receives glory from God according to John 1:14 and 17:5 and that Jesus is "the brightness of his glory at Hebrews 1:3 [pa|in].
Further, this falls short of their claim by means of the understanding of Hebrews 1:3. As I explain in the question, DOES HEBREWS 1:3 PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD in Part 12 (5), Jesus is the reflection of God’s glory, not God himself. He can no more be God than a mirror can be you. Thus, he has not shared his glory at all, but his glory is simply being reflected just like it was in Adam and just like it can be reflected in us individually.
The fact is that he is being glorified by his Father and therefore does not inherently have that glory. When God’s glory is being "reflected", it is not being shared, but is immitated by observing God’s qualities and demonstrating them, just as a person’s image is reflected in a mirror. Paul said this when he said: "all of us, while we with unveiled faces reflect like mirrors the glory of Jehovah, are transformed into the same image from one degree of glory to another, exactly as it is done by Jehovah the Spirit." (2Co 3:18 [pa|in]) Also, Proverbs 17:6 [pa|in] says that a father is a son’s glory. Thus, just by being in God’s presence, all of God’s sons have the glory of their father. (Ro 9:4 [pa|in]) So are we to believe that Christians and angels are all God? Obviously not. However, Jehovah God does not share his glory, that is, his position as the only true God for which he is glorified, not even with Jesus. (Joh 17:3 [pa|in]; 1Ti 1:17 [pa|in])
Having glory and standing beside someone does not make them the same person. It does not say that Jesus shares the Father’s authority, but John 17:2 [pa|in] says that Jesus receives his authority from the Father. How can he receive authority that already belongs to him? Verse 3 [pa|in] distinctly refers to the Father as "the only true God". If only the Father is "the only true God", then obviously the Son is not. If you say that your father is "the only true king", then it means that you are not.
Further, this falls short of their claim by means of the understanding of Hebrews 1:3. As I explain in the question, DOES HEBREWS 1:3 PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD in Part 12 (5), Jesus is the reflection of God’s glory, not God himself. He can no more be God than a mirror can be you. Thus, he has not shared his glory at all, but his glory is simply being reflected just like it was in Adam and just like it can be reflected in us individually.
The fact is that he is being glorified by his Father and therefore does not inherently have that glory. When God’s glory is being "reflected", it is not being shared, but is immitated by observing God’s qualities and demonstrating them, just as a person’s image is reflected in a mirror. Paul said this when he said: "all of us, while we with unveiled faces reflect like mirrors the glory of Jehovah, are transformed into the same image from one degree of glory to another, exactly as it is done by Jehovah the Spirit." (2Co 3:18 [pa|in]) Also, Proverbs 17:6 [pa|in] says that a father is a son’s glory. Thus, just by being in God’s presence, all of God’s sons have the glory of their father. (Ro 9:4 [pa|in]) So are we to believe that Christians and angels are all God? Obviously not. However, Jehovah God does not share his glory, that is, his position as the only true God for which he is glorified, not even with Jesus. (Joh 17:3 [pa|in]; 1Ti 1:17 [pa|in])
Having glory and standing beside someone does not make them the same person. It does not say that Jesus shares the Father’s authority, but John 17:2 [pa|in] says that Jesus receives his authority from the Father. How can he receive authority that already belongs to him? Verse 3 [pa|in] distinctly refers to the Father as "the only true God". If only the Father is "the only true God", then obviously the Son is not. If you say that your father is "the only true king", then it means that you are not.
You decide: Are these verses, taken together, clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: Fathers are the glory of their sons. But they do not share that glory, because they are not their fathers. All of Gods sons receive God’s glory and reflect it like mirrors. Jesus reflects God’s glory just as we can to a less extent. These do not say Jesus is God or shares equally in the Father’s authority. Immediate context shows subordination to the Father who is "the only true God".
DOES ISAIAH 43:11 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
The claim that Jesus and Jehovah both being called saviors means that Jesus is God is beyond weak. Othniel (Jg 3:9 [pa|in]), Ehud (Jg 3:15 [pa|in]), David (2Sa 10:1-19 [pa|in]; 2Ki 13:5 [pa|in]) and Judas Maccabeus (Isa 19:16-25 [pa|in]; 60:16 [pa|in]) were all referred to as "saviors" in the Bible. Who was responsible for these saviors and himself called "Savior" for it? Jehovah (1Sa 10:19 [pa|in]; Ne 9:27 [pa|in]) Thus, his sending his Son as a savior still allows Jehovah himself to be a Savior, because Jehovah himself authored salvation. Can you see how faulty the Trinitarian/Binitarian reasoning is here?"There is no Savior" besides Jehovah in the sense that he is the God that brought them out of Egypt, not some foreign god. (Isa 43:10b-12 [pa|in]; Ho 13:4 [pa|in]) The whole time he took care of them while they were under the rule of other nations, he was their Savior and there was no other divine being saving them.
What did Jude, the brother of Jesus say about God as Savior? Note that he did not say that Jesus is "our God and Savior", but that "the only God" is "our Savior
You decide: Is this verse clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: God has saved through many "saviors". Also, this verse makes clear that only Jehovah is under consideration, not multiple parts of God.
DOES ISAIAH 44:24 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
Isaiah 44:24 rightly states: "I, Jehovah, am doing everything, stretching out the heavens by myself, laying out the earth. Who was with me?" However, there Jehovah was speaking to the wayward Jews, making a point that none of those Jews were there when he formed the earth, thus saying that they cannot command him, but he is the one with right to command them. Can you see what Trinitarians/Binitarians have failed to consider?Also, the Scriptures make clear that the angels were indeed with him at the time of laying out the earth. (Job 38:4-7 [pa|in]) Saying that Isaiah 44:24 proves that Jesus is God because he was "the only one" there and he helped is calling God a liar because He inspired Elihu to speak of those "morning stars" who were also there. (Job 38:7 [pa|in]) Thus, Isaiah 44:24 is not asking the question about anyone but the Jews.
You decide: Is this verse clear proof that Jesus is God? Consider: Jehovah was asking the question of those Jews specifically, as the angels were with God in the beginning.
DOES ISAIAH 45:22 [pa|in] WITH ZECHARIAH 12:10 [pa|in] PROVE THAT JESUS IS GOD?
Many translations translate the opening words of this verse as "look unto me”, which is a corruption meant to bolster the Trinity by associating it with Zechariah 12:10. However, the Hebrew expression "pə·nū-’ê·lay" (פְּנוּ־אֵלַ֥י) at Isaiah 45:22 should be translated as “turn to me” instead, as "penu" means "turn", not "look", which is a completely different word. Thus this verse does not actually support the idea of 'looking to God' and therefore cannot be associated with Zechariah 12:10Return to the beginning of the Salvation vs. the Trinity/Binity series
Go back to: Part 12 (1): Is There Proof That Jesus Is God? (General)?
Go to: Part 12 (3): Is There Proof That Jesus Is God? (Jeremiah to John 1)
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