The Trinity/Binity, Part 14 (2): Is There Proof That Holy spirit Is a Distinct Personage? (Specific Scriptures)

DOES PSALM 139:7 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Some claim that this proves the omnipresence of holy spirit as a separate being, yet this scripture treats Jehovah's spirit as no more separate from, nor less abstract than, his own figurative "face", which merely shows how intrinsic holy spirit is to Jehovah, not a distinct personage.

You decide: Does this verse prove that holy spirit is a separate personage in a Trinity? Consider: Holy spirit is as much a part of Jehovah as his "face".

DOES ISAIAH 40:12-14 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Some claim that this proves the spirit's omniscience or omnipotence, but it only shows that no one but God can measure or regulate God's spirit or active force as if regulating volumes of water, grains of dust or the weight of mountains and hills. Verse 13 ^_[pa|in] was asking who among mankind can instruct Jehovah. In fact, that verse shows that Jehovah's spirit is indistinguishable from Jehovah himself, as in the same breath it is asking us who can measure his spirit or advise him. It was not asking who could advise his spirit, as verse 10 ^_[pa|in] shows that what follows is about Jehovah, not his spirit.

You decide: Do these verses prove that holy spirit is a separate personage in a Trinity? Consider: It is mentioned in precisely the same way as water, dust and mountains and is shown to be indistinfuishable from Jehovah himself.

DO ISAIAH 63:10 ^_[pa|in] and EPHESIANS 4:30 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

They claim that because the spirit "grieves" that it is a personage, but at Daniel 2:3 ^_[pa|in], the king's spirit was "agitated", showing that the spirit in such an instance is merely the emotional center of the person.

You decide:  Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: A person's agitation can be said to be in their spirit.

DOES EZEKIEL 8:1-3 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

This account refers to "a spirit" (Heb., ruach), not "the spirit" (Heb., haruach). This generic type of "spirit" is an angel, as the scripture says, "He makes his angels spirits, His ministers a consuming fire." (Psalm 104:4 ^_[pa|in])

You decide: Do these verses prove that holy spirit is a personage? Consider: The language and scripture make it clear that an angel is meant.

DOES MATTHEW 12:31, 32 ^_[pa|in] AND MARK 3:28, 29 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Contrary to such assumptions, blaspheming does not require that the thing blasphemed is a personage. Anything can be blasphemed. The word literally means "injure fame", indicating the impact the words have towards the reputation of the personage or thing; harmfully mischaracterizing it; slandering it. For example, an organization can be blasphemed, or an action, such as a medical procedure, or an object, such as a sword. Whatever gives that person, organization, action or object a misleading bad reputation is blasphemous; slanderous.

You decide: Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: Even organizations, actions and objects can be blasphemed; slandered.

DOES MATTHEW 1:18 ^_[pa|in], 20 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

In this account, Mary is said to have been "found to be pregnant by holy spirit." If the holy spirit is its own entity, then this would mean that adultery occurred. But if it is not a living being, then that means the holy spirit was simply a tool by which she was made pregnant, like artificial insemination. The angel Gabriel, who told her that it would happen, described the spirit as God's power, (Luke 1:35 ^_[pa|in]) and it overshadowed her like a cloud. (Luke 9:34 ^_[pa|in])

You decide: Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: The same things could be said for a form of artificial insemination using tools and as a cloud overshadowing her. Gabriel called it God's power.

DOES MATTHEW 28:19 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

See DOES MATTHEW 28:19 PROVE A UNITY OF MULTIPLE PARTS OF GOD? in Part 10: Is There Proof that God is a Trinity or Binity?

DOES JOHN 14:16-26 ^_[pa|in] JOHN 15:26 AND 16:7-15 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

In nearly all places in the continuous account in chapters 14 to 16, the "holy spirit" is only once mentioned in connection with the Father or Son, as a messenger. At 14:20, it speaks of a Christian's union with the Father and the Son, but not the holy spirit. At verses 21 and 23, 24 Jesus mentions the apostles being loved by the Father and the Son, but not the holy spirit. In verse 28, the apostles were to rejoice that he was going to the Father, but not to the holy spirit. At 15:10, the Son remauns in the Father's love, but where is the holy spirit. At 15:23, 24, whoever hates Jesus hates the Father, but what of the holy spirit? At 16:10, he is going to the Gather, but not the holy spirit.

In verses 26 and 28, in the only mention of the "holy spirit" in these passages, Jesus shows a clear demarkation of authority in which holy spirit, once again referred to with neuter pronouns, is "sent" as subordinate.

Now here is a very important point not to be overlooked. At John 16:13, Jesus said, "... he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak of his own initiative, but what he hears he will speak ..." This verse parallels John 5:30 and 14:24 where Jesus said the same thing about himself.

This is explained at John 14:23, 24, where Jesus said, "If anyone loves me, he will observe my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our dwelling with him. ..." This shows that it is the Father and the Son who are coming to them in a special and illustrative way, otherwise it would be pointless to 'send a helper' if they are already with the person. So this "helper" facilitates their being with the apostles in a joint way. This is why the same words apply to the helper as to Christ. Because Christ is the one speaking by means of the holy spirit. The holy spirit is being used by the Father and the Son as a messege carrier. It is personified because it delivers messages and makes things possible.

Because "helper" is in the masculine, Greek grammar demands that the pronouns also be masculine. It is only in John 14 to 16 that male pronouns are used toward holy spirit and only in reference to its personification as "the helper".

Acts 2:4 ^_[pa|in], which fulfills John 14:26, 15:26 and 16:7-15, shows how the spirit teaches and brings back to their minds by 'enabling' them (Thus why it is called a "helper") to learn and to remember, just as prescription drugs can help one improve one's ability to learn and remember by adjusting the chemical balance in their brain. At Acts 2:4, a reservoir of knowledge is opened to them about how to speak various languages. They do not actually interact with an entity called "holy spirit" or get controlled by it, as Acts 2:4 shows that it merely enabled them to speak the language, it did not control what they spoke. To do so would undermine their free will.

You decide: Are these verses clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: Their fulfillment at Acts 2:4 shows that the holy spirit 'helped' them by simply enabling them. No personage was shown to be present and it did not control them or speak through them as if possessing them.

DOES ACTS 5:3, 4 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

It is said that because Ananias and Sapphira could "lie to the holy spirit," that it is a personage. But is that really what happened? The scripture shows that they did not merely "lie to the holy spirit"; but it says that they were "emboldened" by Satan to do so. The account shows that they were attempting to lie to men, (verse 4 ^_[pa|in]) so their purpose was to prove that holy spirit was not with the Christian congregation.

This account actually highlights the inseparability of the spirit from God, as Paul said in verse 4, "You have lied ... to God", just as 1 Corinthians 6:19 ^_[pa|in] shows that holy spirit dwells inside Christians and is not a God-personage of a Trinity, but simply comes from God himself because it is an extension of him. God is the source of the holy spirit without distinction. (John 4:24 ^_[pa|in]; 2 Corinthians 3:17, 18 ^_[pa|in] NWT; see "DO 1 CORINTHIANS 12:4-6, 2 CORINTHIANS 13:14 pAND HEBREWS 9:13-14 PROVE THAT GOD IS A TRINITY?" in Part 10: Is There Proof that God is a Trinity or Binity?)

You decide: Do these verses prove that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: No clear identifying markers are given of the holy spirit being a separate personage from the Father. As shown elsewhere, it is the Father himself, his own active force, which he sends out to accomplish his will and that Jehovah is the spirit, not Christ.

DOES ACTS 13:2 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Though the holy spirit is said to be speaking, it is in immediate relation to their "ministering to the Lord" (NASB), which means the holy spirit was relating the message of the Lord and not of its own originality. No personage was shown to be present. Indeed, 2 Peter 1:21 ^_[pa|in] makes this clear when Peter writes: "men spoke from God as they were moved by holy spirit." Note that it says that they "spoke from God" and were "moved by holy spirit", two separate things, with the spirit being nothing more than an impelling force. Would you call a radio or TV signal a third personage of "the president of the United States" because it transmits a message from the president? Obviously not.

You decide: Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: No personage is shown to be present. A message from Jehovah was related, nothing more.

DOES ACTS 15:28 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Note that the apostles put their own authority on par with the holy spirit. Certainly if the holy spirit were a second or third person of a Trinity, it would supercede their authority. It meant that by their agreement, they demonstrated that they were expressing the will of God as presented through the holy spirit. Otherwise, they would be claiming equality with God, which would be blasphemy. On the contrary, they were demonstrating how the spirit operates in line with Romans 8:16 ^_[pa|in] and 1 Corinthians 2:10-13 ^_[pa|in], (See DOES 1 CORINTHIANS 2:10-11 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE? below for more details,) which also explains what it means to be "taught by the spirit". Verses 6-7 of Acts 15 ^_[pa|in] show that this is done by gathering together and discussing the scriptures and the established prophecies of their members which they do in the intervening text. At no point did holy spirit speak up or appear.

You decide: Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: They were speaking of being guided in their spirit by being in line with God's spirit. A God personage did not make itself known at that meeting, or appear.

DO ACTS 16:7 AND PHILIPPIANS 1:19 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

See DO ACTS 16:7 AND PHILIPPIANS 1:19 PROVE THAT JESUS IS THE HOLY SPIRIT? Part 16: Is Jesus the Holy Spirit?

DOES ROMANS 8:27 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Too many translations use the word "mind" to translate the Greek word "phronema", which actually means "disposition", while the actual Greek word for "mind" is "noun". (pronounced "noo-un" ; 1 Corinthians 2:16 ^_[pa|in]) The Greek word "phronema" indicates the hidden thoughts and inclinations. (Note its relationship to the word "prone", when used towards one's inclinations. Such as "he is prone to act".) The word is also translated in various translations as "what the Spirit is saying" (NLT), "what is the desire of the Spirit" (Jubilee 2000), "what the Spirit desireth" (Douay-Rheims) and "what the Spirit's meaning is" (Weymouth). (See DOES 1 CORINTHIANS 2:10-11 PROVE THAT THE HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE? below for more details.) This is important because it shows that the spirit does not actually have its own "mind", but merely indicates the leading of the holy spirit within us. It is our own desires that are being motivated to action in connection with the holy spirit from God.

You decide: Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: It only indicates the motivation we receive through the holy spirit.

DOES 1 CORINTHIANS 2:10-11 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

They claim that this scripture proves the omniscience of holy spirit, yet it is God who does the revealing and the spirit is once again a tool he uses. Verse 11 ^_[pa|in] shows that it is no greater a personage than the spirit of a man is a separate personage from the man. Verse 10 ^_[pa|in] means that by means of God's guidance through his spirit that men are able to search the deep things of God. When we look at the context, we see that Verse 12 ^_[pa|in] shows that they receive knowledge through the spirit and that the spitit is "from God", not a separate personage that is God; and verse 13 ^_[pa|in] shows that men receive the spirit of God in order that they might explain what is spiritual. This is summed up in verse 16 ^_[pa|in] when he writes, "For 'who has come to know the mind of Jehovah, so that he may instruct him?' But we do have the mind of Christ." In this, they do not converse with any personage. The conclusion is that spirit itself does not express any originality, but merely relates guidance from God by leadings. (See DOES ROMANS 8:27 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE? above for more information.)

You decide: Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: Verses 11-13 show that it is not the spirit itself, but the men guided by it that do the actual searching that they might connect with the guidance from God.

DOES 1 CORINTHIANS 12:11 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

Some claim that this scripture proves that holy spirit has a "will". However, Hebrews 2:4 ^_[pa|in] shows that the will providing those gifts is God's, not a separate personage of God, and that he provides it through distributions (Lit., "partings"; "gifts" is an alternate variant) of holy spirit.

You decide:  Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: The said will is shown to be Jehovah's.

DOES 2 CORINTHIANS 3:13-18 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

See DOES 2 CORINTHIANS 3:13-18 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS JESUS? in Part 16: Is Jesus the Holy Spirit?

DOES 2 CORINTHIANS 13:14 PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

See DO 1 CORINTHIANS 12:4-6, 2 CORINTHIANS 13:14 AND HEBREWS 9:13-14 PROVE THAT GOD IS A TRINITY? in Part 10: Is There Proof that God is a Trinity or Binity?

DOES HEBREWS 9:14 ^_[pa|in] PROVE THAT HOLY SPIRIT IS A PERSONAGE?

The definite article is not actually used here where some claim it proves the spirit is independently eternal, but it merely stands to reason that if God is eternal, his spirit is also eternal. The eternality of the holy spirit in no way requires that it be a separate personage of God.

You decide:  Is this verse clear proof that holy spirit is a separate personage from the Father? Consider: Length of life does not establish independence of one's own spirit.


Return to the beginning of the Salvation vs. the Trinity/Binity series

Go back to: Part 14 (1): Is There Proof that Holy Spirit is a Personage? (General)

Coming Soon: Part 15: Definitive Proof That Holy Spirit Is Not a Personage